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61
When was the partition of Bengal annulled?
A. 12th December 1909
B. 12th December 1911
C. 12th December 1913
D. 12th December 1915
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The partition of Bengal, enacted in 1905 by Lord Curzon, divided Bengal into two provinces to weaken nationalist movements. It sparked widespread protests, particularly from the Indian National Congress, due to its perceived "divide and rule" policy. The intense agitation led King George V to announce the annulment of the partition on 12th December 1911 during the Delhi Durbar, reuniting Bengal while separating Bihar and Orissa as distinct provinces.
62
Which sector is projected to be the primary driver of Pakistan's GDP growth under the latest 5 year plan (2024-29)? (2026)
A. Agriculture only
B. Heavy manufacturing
C. Services sector
D. None of these
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Services sector is the primary driver and largest contributor to Pakistan GDP.
63
The project manager insisted that the prototype be tested immediately because any delay could be ______ to the schedule.
A. detrimental
B. negligible
C. fortuitous
D. redundant
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Detrimental means harmful; a delay that harms the schedule fits the sentence context.
64
In a stable temperate grassland ecosystem, which trophic level typically has the greatest standing biomass?
A. Primary producers (plants)
B. Primary consumers (herbivores)
C. Secondary consumers (predators)
D. Tertiary consumers (top predators)
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In most terrestrial ecosystems like grasslands, producers (plants) form the largest biomass because energy diminishes up the trophic levels.
65
In a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for k categories where m parameters are estimated from the data, the appropriate degrees of freedom is:
A. k
B. k − 1 − m
C. k − m
D. k + m − 1
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The degrees of freedom equal the number of categories minus one (for the probability sum constraint) minus the number of estimated parameters, i.e., k−1−m.
66
Which of the following is the correct interpretation of a p-value in hypothesis testing?
A. The probability that the null hypothesis is true given the data
B. The probability that the alternative hypothesis is true
C. The probability of committing a Type II error
D. The probability of obtaining data as extreme as observed or more so, assuming the null hypothesis is true
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A p-value is the probability, under H0, of observing data at least as extreme as the observed result; it is not the probability that H0 is true.
67
Among forms of decentralization, which grants the greatest degree of political and administrative autonomy to subordinate levels of government?
A. Deconcentration
B. Delegation
C. Devolution
D. Centralization
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Devolution transfers powers and responsibilities to local governments with significant political and administrative autonomy, unlike deconcentration or delegation.
68
Which reliability coefficient is most appropriate for assessing the temporal stability of a psychological test when the same test is administered to the same group twice over time?
A. Internal consistency (e.g., Cronbach’s alpha) measuring item homogeneity.
B. Test–retest reliability measuring stability of scores over time.
C. Inter-rater reliability assessing agreement between different scorers.
D. Split-half reliability correlating two halves of a single administration.
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Test–retest reliability evaluates whether test scores remain consistent across administrations separated by time, indicating temporal stability.
69
How did John Stuart Mill modify classical utilitarianism compared to Jeremy Bentham?
A. By rejecting the greatest-happiness principle in favor of deontological rules.
B. By introducing qualitative distinctions among pleasures, arguing some pleasures are higher than others.
C. By grounding morality in divine commands rather than consequences.
D. By asserting that individual rights always outweigh aggregate utility.
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Mill retained the greatest-happiness principle but argued that intellectual and moral pleasures are qualitatively superior to mere bodily pleasures.
70
According to the FPSC CE-2016 revised scheme and syllabus, a 200-mark optional subject in the CSS exam is examined as:
A. One three-hour paper carrying 200 marks
B. Two separate papers of 100 marks each
C. Four papers of 50 marks each
D. Continuous assessment plus one 100-mark paper
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The FPSC revised scheme specifies that 200-mark optional subjects are examined in two 100-mark papers, not a single 200-mark paper.